Why big 3 followed idea of appeasement toward Germany?

Answer 1

There were at the time several very good reasons for an appeasement policy . First of all the background: the areas that Hitler had occupied so far, had all been part of Germany before WW 1 and had been 'given away' by the Allies to other countries in 1919. The Allies could in some way understand that Hitler had by now reclaimed them. The joining up of Austria with Germany had been asked for by the Austrians themselves back in 1919 (only to be refused by the Allies) and the Allies knew it had wide popular support within Austia itself.

So there was a tendency to think that Germany was up to now only redressing the 'wrongs' of the Treaty of Versailles, and everything could be alright if they only would promise not to make any territorial demands on areas that had not been theirs to begin with.

And there were other very good reasons, too. The US was firmly isolationist and would certainly not take up arms against Germany. France had been arming itself but purely defensively and they were unprepared and totally unwilling to take any offensive action against Germany. So Britain stood alone. But although it had a strong Navy, it had only a small army in Europe that it knew was no match for the German armed forces. Other European countries had either strong armies but were Fascist themselves (like Italy and Spain) or they were militarily weak and resolute only in their decision to stay out of any conflict.

British PM Neville Chaimberlain had no choice, really. He had no means or support from his Allied collegues or anyone else for any action against Germany and he desperately needed to buy time to build up Britain's army and defences. The other parties on his side were only happy that a war risk had been averted for which they were unprepared.