Wait a second. Help me out here, and please take it slowly, because sometimes
I get confused . . .
If Palestine was declared a nation for Jews, and the Jewish nation has been a
UN member for 62 years, then exactly what country are Erakat and Abbas and
Ashrawhi trying so hard to get admitted to the UN now ?
The Mandate for Palestine was created in 1919 with the view that part of that territory would be given to the Jews to form a Jewish National Homeland. However, the Jews who eventually created this Jewish National Homeland did not call their country Palestine, but Israel in 1948. The Arabs living in the territory who rejected the Jewish State continued to call themselves Palestinians and today, the term Palestine is used exclusively to refer to the parts of the former Mandate for Palestine that are not part of the Jewish National Homeland.
Israel
The Romans wanted to wipe out remnant of the Jews in ancient Palestine, so they named it Palestine after the Philistine nation that lived across the Jordan.
After the Jews in Palestine declared independence as the State of Israel, war immediately broke out between the newborn state and its Arab neighbors, including Egypt and Jordan.
The Exile of Jews from palestine is known as the Diaspora
Because Palestine keeps attacking the Jews.
They had been in Palestine for some time, but they declared the independence of the state of Israel on 14 May 1948.
Because it isn't a nation. It never has been. This is confusing, I know, but "Palestine" is called that by the people who live there because it is part of the last legitimate name used by a nation that controlled the region to identify it. The UK controlled the Mandatory of Palestine from 1920 to 1948. The region was carved up after WW2 and a nation was made for the Jews and a separate region (not a state) for the Arabic people. UN directive 181 gave the Jews the legitimacy to declare their area, Israel, a sovereign nation. The nonJews of the region never followed suit.
1948 Zionist never attacked Palestine; there were always Zionistic Jews in Israel. Palestine is just a name the British made up for the area; Zionist obviously couldn't have attacked it in 1948. Israel declared independence and most of the Arab countries attacked it.
Prior to 1948, Palestine had gone through a number of demographic shifts. The Roman sacking of Jerusalem in 70 AD resulted in many Jewish inhabitants being enslaved, although many Jews and Samaritans in the countryside remained. Many Jews moved back to the land over the following centuries as indicated by the many Sephardic villages in Palestine and all over the Middle East. Despite the Muslim conquest, the Crusades, and the Ottomans, the Sephardic Jewish population of Palestine grew, and the Old Jewish Quarter in Jerusalem was often the most populated in the city. In the 19th century, Ashkenazi Jews from Europe began moving to Palestine for reasons religious, zionist, and/or due to anti-semitic pressures in Europe...this is the time many people consider "the return of the Jews to the Holy Land" which fails to recognize the continuing presence of Sephardic Jews. In the 20th century, the Jews of Palestine, considered themselves Palestinians until Israel declared independence in 1948, at which point they considered themselves Israelis. At that time, Jews and Muslim Arabs were in almost equal numbers along with Christians, Druze, etc.
no
No. Jews had already been migrating to Israel/Palestine in substantial numbers since 1919.
There have always been Jews in Palestine. They were not the majority between the years 132 CE and 1949 CE.