Spain.
NO, NO, NO! Who are you!? It was either controlled by Mexico or the US. Spain mainly controlled S. America and did control Mexico before the US was formed.
yes ,Gibraltar does belong to spain
The real question is this, "Was Mexico New Spain"? But YES. Yes indeed. It began with the Spanish conquest of the Aztec Empire in central Mexico (the Valley of Mexico in central Mexico) in 1521. Meanwhile, Portuguese explorer, Ferdinand Magellan arrived into the Philippines in Asia and claimed the Philippines for Spain. In 1543, Ruy Lopez de Villalobos had named the Philippines "Las Islas Filipinas" (The Philippine Islands in Spanish) in honor of Philip II of Spain. Philip II was the KING of Spain and Portugal, but was originally born in Spain. And so, the Philippines was named after Philip II of Spain. Spanish colonization began in the Philippines when Spanish explorer, Miguel Lopez de Legazpi arrived in the Philippines from Mexico (New Spain) in 1565. From 1565 to 1821, the Philippines was a territory of New Spain, which IS NOW Mexico because when the Spanish conquered the Aztec Empire in Mexico, the Spanish had claimed the Aztec Empire as "NEW SPAIN". So Mexico became New Spain. Also, New Spain, including the Philippines in Asia, was governed by the Spanish from Mexico City (formerly Tenochtitlan). Mexico City was the capital of New Spain. Mexico City is also the capital, largest city, and federal district of Mexico.
Spanish conquistadors found Mexico in 1519.
Spain is in Europe, Mexico is in North America.
They belong to Spain.
No. Kentucky was never a colony, and will never be a colony.
Spain.
Mexico was a colony of Spain from 1521 until 1821.
Mexico
No