It really depends on the dictators in question and who is being referred to specifically with "the world". If the question is specifically asking about how Britain and France appeased the dictators of Germany and Italy prior to World War II, it was by ceding Germany control of the Czech territory called the Sudetenland in the hopes that this would stop Germany's ambitions in 1938. As history shows, this attempt to create peace through concessions to a malevolent dictator was not successful and, in fact, galvanized his push for further conquest.
Germany and Italy both fell to dictators in World War 1.
Adolph Hitler, Josef Stalin, and Benito Mussolini were dictators.
Will appease.(I run, I ran, I will run)(I appease, I appeased, I will appease)
power
the withdrawl from world affairs is called
Asyas Aforki
During the World War II era, Western democracies were initially unable to stop aggressive dictators from accomplishing expansionist goals for several reasons. For one thing, they lacked the popular support that would enable decisive military action against the dictators (and nations) in question. For another, they lacked reliable support from a significant number of allied or sympathetic nations, whose support would have proved critical in any confrontation with the dictators in question.
Appease is a verb.
Three of the most well known dictators are Adolf Hitler from Germany, Joseph Stalin from Russia, and Benito Mussolini from Italy.
The dictators ruthlessly exploited fear of Communism.
because they knew dictators meant trouble and could get sooo much power that they COULD take over the world possibly
What is the word appease