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One possible explanation: So that Macbeth will have heirs for the throne he takes from Duncan, so that Banquo's sons will not eventually take the throne, as the witches first predicted.

Another explanation: Macbeth doesn't really ever say that he wants his wife to bear him sons... He just says, "Bring forth men children only,/ for thy undaunted mettle should compose / Nothing but males." This is in act one, scene seven, after Lady Macbeth has told Macbeth how they can kill Duncan. By this he means that Lady Macbeth's commanding and ruthless nature is more suited to having boys than girls. OK, so Macbeth has masculinity issues. How else do you think Lady M was able to talk him into the murder?

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12y ago

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It's widely believed that Macbeth and his lady may have had a child prior to the play, who either was killed or disowned. Whether it was a girl or boy is unknown. Besides, female children couldn't inherit the crown.

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15y ago
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He says, "Bring forth men children only". Both Macbeth and Lady Macbeth are fixated on a notion of masculinity as embodying determination, courage, boldness but also cruelty. Lady Macbeth had earlier asked the gods to "unsex me here and fill me from the crown to the toe top-full of direst cruelty." Compassion and kindness are feminine qualities, which is why Lady Macbeth associates them with milk ("the milk of human kindness"); to be less kind, her breasts should be filled with gall. Lady Macbeth, in order to make Macbeth renounce his decision not to do the murder, stresses this point. She calls him a coward and he responds "I dare do all that may become a man", asserting his masculine courage, and she replies, "when you durst do it then you were a man", and underlines it with another reference to breast milk and the horrific image of her beating her baby's brains out. This is sufficient to change his mind. So, when he says "bring forth men children only", he is not talking about having a family like Mrs. McCave (who had 23 sons and named them all Dave) but rather means, as he explains, "thy undaunted mettle should compose nothing but males." She is courageous, and that is a masculine quality, and she is so masculine that her children should all be males as well. It's a strange take on gender roles, but they are a strange couple.

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8y ago
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Q: 9 Why does Macbeth tell his wife that she should have only male children?
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What does Macbeth mean Bring forth men children only?

In Act 1, Scene 7 of Shakespeare's "Macbeth," Lady Macbeth expresses her desire for her husband to only father male children. She believes that men are seen as stronger and more capable of ruling than women, and she wants her husband to only produce sons who can inherit power and continue their legacy. This line reflects the gender norms and expectations of the time, where male heirs were often preferred over female ones for succession and power.


Who does Macbeth kill in the play Macbeth?

The Macbeth family victim list is: King Duncan, his two chamberlains, Banquo, a fellow general, but his son escapes, Lady Macduff and her children (Lady Macduff's murder is not shown onstage to emphasize the horror of killing children) Macbeth also kills young Siward towards the end


Read this passage MACBETH. Bring forth men-children only For thy undaunted mettle should compose Nothing but males. Will it not be received When we have mark'd with blood those sleepy two Of his own c?

He has decided to kill the king- Apex


How does Lady Macbeth hear about the prophecy?

Macbeth wrote Lady Macbeth a letter describing his encounter with the witches. Lady Macbeth reads it out at the beginning of Act I Scene 5


Why does Macbeth succumb to Lady Macbeth's demand that he murder Duncan?

She desires the kingship for him and wants him to murder Duncan in order for Macbeth to obtain it. Not only that, but Macbeth has a weak will, and Lady Macbeth, being determined and intelligent, manages to persuade the indecisive Macbeth to commit regicide.