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William Shakespeare did not write 'Macbeth' for King James I and VI. He wrote it for his acting company The King's Men to perform. Although the play does include some flattering things about the king, it does not show up on lists of plays performed before him. Our only record of it being performed is at the Globe in 1612. It was never published in quarto form, which makes it unlikely that it was popular with people generally, or that it had royal favour. It also appears to have been substantially revised and possibly turned into a musical by Thomas Middleton, which is again unlikely if it was popular or a royal favourite.

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Q: What king did shakespeare write Macbeth to?
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Who is king Ducan?

He was the King of Scotland who was murdered by the thane Macbeth in Shakespeare's tragedy Macbeth.


Who was Macbeth of Scotland?

In Scotland many years ago, there was a king named Macbeth. Wlliam Shakespeare's Macbeth was named after this great king. unlike in Shakespeare's play, Macbeth was a fantastic legendery King, and not a murderous man, like in the play


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I assume you meant "Why did Shakespeare make Macbeth a villan?" Well, what could the storyline have been if he wasn't a villan? Shakespeare's Macbeth was based on the real Macbeth. He murdered his king, Duncan, and became king. I guess that means that the real Macbeth was a villan, and so Shakespeare only kept it that way, showing it wasn't Shakespeare that made his character of Macbeth a villan.


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Macbeth is leading the revolt against King Duncan in Shakespeare's play "Macbeth."


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