answersLogoWhite

0


Best Answer

Is he? What is a "noble gentleman"? He is certainly arrogant and holds the people of Denmark in contempt, as witness:

1. "the groundlings, who for the most part are capable of nothing but inexplicable dumb-shows and noise" Read: poor people are stupid.

2. "he's for a jig or a tale of bawdry, or he sleeps" Read: Polonius is a lowbrow; ignore him.

3. "the age is grown so picked that the toe of the peasant comes so near the heel of the courtier he galls his kibe" Read: What! Do these peasants consider themselves even close to being our equals?

4. His whole treatment of Osric. "Let a beast be lord of beasts and his crib shall stand at the king's mess." Read: Just because Osric owns land, don't think he isn't another stupid peasant.

5. His callous murder of Rosencrantz and Guildenstern. "They are not near my conscience; their defeat does by their own insinuation grow." Read: Sure, I'll kill the messenger. He deserves it for being a messenger.

An aristocratic gentleman, surely, but noble? Not in my books.

User Avatar

Wiki User

12y ago
This answer is:
User Avatar

Add your answer:

Earn +20 pts
Q: How does shakespeare establish that hamlet is indeed a noble gentleman?
Write your answer...
Submit
Still have questions?
magnify glass
imp
Continue Learning about Performing Arts

A little more than kin and less than kind?

Hamlet's first line in Shakespeare's Hamlet. It is said in response to Claudius's line "And now my cousin Hamlet, and our son . . ." Hamlet is both nephew and stepson to Claudius, which is more kinship than is usual. "Less than kind" might mean that Claudius is not a kind person, with the sound pun on the words "kin" and "kind" The line might also mean that Hamlet is kin to Claudius (indeed, more than kin), but he is not of Claudius's kind--they are unlike.


Were Shakespeare's ideas accepted immidiatly?

Shakespeare was not known for his ideas. He was known for his plays, which were indeed immediately popular.


Why did William Shakespeare write to be or to not to be?

The words "to be or not to be" or even the speech that starts with those words is so well-known and famous that people tend to forget that it exists only because it is a speech said by a character called Hamlet in a play called Hamlet. Shakespeare put those words in Hamlet's mouth for a purpose related to the flow of the dramatic action. The problem is that the speech does not seem to have much to do with the dramatic action at that point of the play, or indeed with the action of the play at all. It has no reference to any of the characters in the play, or any of the situations in the play. It does not include the pronouns "I" or "me" so it is hard to believe that Hamlet is talking about himself. For some reason, Hamlet is indulging in an impersonal philosophical discourse while going to an appointment with Claudius (Claudius does say earlier in the scene that he has sent for Hamlet). It is up to the director and actor to find a reason which satisfies them.


What metaphors for aging does Shakespeare use?

Autumn


What is ironic about Claudius telling Hamlet You are the most immediate to our throne?

People who expect the monarchy to pass by primogeniture (as the English monarchy does and did in Shakespeare's day) would expect Prince Hamlet to have been the heir to King Hamlet. Thus it is ironic for Claudius to say that Hamlet is most immediate to Claudius's throne because by the rules of primogeniture, Claudius has usurped and Claudius should be the most immediate to Hamlet's throne. There is a further irony in that in fact in Denmark at the time, the rules of primogeniture did not apply and Claudius would indeed have been the rightful heir, especially having married the widow of the previous king, but the audience, thinking they know better, would consider him to be a usurper.

Related questions

William Shakespeare what did Hamlet mean by the undiscovered country from whose bourne no traveler returns?

As the soliloquy at that point is indeed speaking about death (Hamlet is contemplating suicide) it suggests that he is talking about the afterlife - from which no one has ever returned - except of course Jesus Christ. (Allegedly mind you...)


Is the play written by Shakespeare Hamlet a silent play?

No. Most of the characters in the play have speaking parts, although there are Lords, guardsmen and others mentioned in the stage directions who do not speak. However, as part of the play-within-a-play, Shakespeare wrote a prologue to the play called a "dumb-show" which is in fact a "silent play"--the actors do not speak. So in that sense a part of Hamlet is indeed a silent play.


A little more than kin and less than kind?

Hamlet's first line in Shakespeare's Hamlet. It is said in response to Claudius's line "And now my cousin Hamlet, and our son . . ." Hamlet is both nephew and stepson to Claudius, which is more kinship than is usual. "Less than kind" might mean that Claudius is not a kind person, with the sound pun on the words "kin" and "kind" The line might also mean that Hamlet is kin to Claudius (indeed, more than kin), but he is not of Claudius's kind--they are unlike.


Where did Hamlet place Polonius after he killed him?

Hamlet says, "But, indeed, if you find him not within this month, you shall nose him as you go up the stairs into the lobby."


Were Shakespeare's ideas accepted immidiatly?

Shakespeare was not known for his ideas. He was known for his plays, which were indeed immediately popular.


Why did William Shakespeare write to be or to not to be?

The words "to be or not to be" or even the speech that starts with those words is so well-known and famous that people tend to forget that it exists only because it is a speech said by a character called Hamlet in a play called Hamlet. Shakespeare put those words in Hamlet's mouth for a purpose related to the flow of the dramatic action. The problem is that the speech does not seem to have much to do with the dramatic action at that point of the play, or indeed with the action of the play at all. It has no reference to any of the characters in the play, or any of the situations in the play. It does not include the pronouns "I" or "me" so it is hard to believe that Hamlet is talking about himself. For some reason, Hamlet is indulging in an impersonal philosophical discourse while going to an appointment with Claudius (Claudius does say earlier in the scene that he has sent for Hamlet). It is up to the director and actor to find a reason which satisfies them.


What metaphors for aging does Shakespeare use?

Autumn


What is ironic about Claudius telling Hamlet You are the most immediate to our throne?

People who expect the monarchy to pass by primogeniture (as the English monarchy does and did in Shakespeare's day) would expect Prince Hamlet to have been the heir to King Hamlet. Thus it is ironic for Claudius to say that Hamlet is most immediate to Claudius's throne because by the rules of primogeniture, Claudius has usurped and Claudius should be the most immediate to Hamlet's throne. There is a further irony in that in fact in Denmark at the time, the rules of primogeniture did not apply and Claudius would indeed have been the rightful heir, especially having married the widow of the previous king, but the audience, thinking they know better, would consider him to be a usurper.


Who is a son born to shakespeare along with a twin sister judith?

Shakespeare had only the one son, Hamnet, who was indeed the twin brother of Judith.


Was there Cock fighting in Shakespeare's time?

Yes, indeed there was, as well as Bear/bull baiting :)


Where can the written plays of William Shakespeare be bought?

Anywhere where they sell books. It would be a very poor bookstore indeed that did not carry the works of Shakespeare somewhere.


Did Hamlet say to be or not to be?

He did indeed. It's the most famous thing he says. He says it in Act III Scene 1 of the play.