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Yes, Shakespeare frequently used both the noun and the verb. As he uses the word well over 50 times and in plays from all parts of his career (but rather more often at the beginning of his career), we will just give two citations as examples. An example of the noun is in Titus Andronicus (II, 3): "Look for thy reward among the nettles at the elder tree which overshades the mouth of that same pit which we decreed to bury Bassanius." Falstaff, in Henry IV Part I (V, 4) uses both noun and verb in the same speech: "I'll follow, as they say, for reward. He that rewards me, God reward him!"

Shakespeare also had some fun in Love's Labour's Lost with an obsolete form of reward, "guerdon". When Don Armado sends Costard with a letter to Jacquenetta, he gives him a reward (he calls it remuneracion because he's Spanish, and that's the Spanish word for reward) of three farthings. Berowne sends Costard on a similar errand to Rosaline and gives him a much more substantial "guerdon". Costard doesn't realize that they are both using general terms and says that a gardon is a much better thing than a remuneracion.

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Q: Did a Shakespearean play ever have the word reward in it?
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