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No. The Spanish counterpart of the name John is Juan.

However it is improper to translate a person's name unless that person uses the translation himself first.

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βˆ™ 12y ago
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βˆ™ 12y ago

me llamo john

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βˆ™ 16y ago

Juan

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βˆ™ 7y ago

juan

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βˆ™ 15y ago

Juan

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βˆ™ 14y ago

john = juan

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βˆ™ 13y ago

Juanito

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βˆ™ 7y ago

John = Juan

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Q: What is the spanish equivalent of John?
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