Although in modern terms we could consider the Conquering of the North American continant as a genocide, it was not considered such by men of those times. They viewed it as a war like any other, with no intention of destroying an entire race. But it could be argued that the "Genocide" began around 1516 A.D. with the arrival of the first Conquistadors from Spain.
Well, the Spanish conquistadors came from Cuba to the America's in 1492 after Columbus discovered the "New World." So I would say somewhere from the late 1400s until the early 1500s.
no, closer to a genocide
You can't since you can't sue the Government.
Genocide implies the intention to exterminate and an ideological motive. Many argue that the European settlers in the Americas wanted the Native Americans' land and that and once the settlers had made the Native Americans 'harmless' the killings largely ceased.The timescale ... Genocide is usually commited over a much narrower timescale.Whether these points are conclusive is another matter, however.
no
Yes most definitely. They purposely planned to kill the Native Americans.
None. That act was created to further the genocide of Natives.
No, however one could consider the killing of Native Americans, with both disease and war to be considered a genocide. Many different tribes were wiped out by the Europeans.
no
its called "forced relocation and genocide" after we killed the native americans... retard!
Often people refer to the mass death of Native Americans within 50 years of European arrival as a genocide. While there was certainly a large percenatage of deaths (in some places as high as ninety percent), there was not a clear motive to kill the Native Americans and most succumbed to disease that the colonizers did not intend to spread.
Because the United States has failed in its attempt to commit genocide by killing them all; but they gave it a good try.
We shouldn't he and his legions committed genocide of the native Americans. At least we get a day off of work...