a verbal contracty is as equally valid as a written one, as long as the party alleging the contract can prove agreement on certain terms
It would be very hard to prove that you had a verbal cancellation in court.
A contract is valid when there is a meeting of the minds. Once a contract is signed, it cannot be changed unless written as an addendum and signed by all parties concerned. A verbal agreement cannot override a written agreement.
This would violate the statue of frauds. The sale of property must be in writing to be valid.
You haven't provided enough detail.A verbal agreement may constitute a binding agreement or contract although it must meet certain requirements. Whether the parties have a valid contract is a determination that must be made by a judge. Some agreements must be in writing in order to be binding. These include transactions regarding real estate and an agreement to make a Will.http://smallbusiness.findlaw.com/business-contracts-forms/what-contracts-are-required-to-be-in-writing.html
Your brother must have a family of his own or why else would you ask this question? If not the cabin is yours, but who am I to tell you this. x NO, it's up to his family if this agreement stands, If it does then I would go through the proper channels.
Yes
There likely is no recourse unless the party being represented accepted the offer and it resulted in detrimental financial consequences or other such harm due to the error. For example, an injury settlement that was acceptable to the injured party and after agreement the person found out that the offer they accepted was not the one that had been presented to them.If the injured party signed an agreement then the terms of the agreement would likely be valid regardless of whether or not there was a "verbal" misunderstanding.If the attorney deliberately mislead the client or was incompetent in his or her representation there could be grounds for civil suit.
No. Only a court order can override an existing court order. A verbal agreement will be considered by the court in rendering its decision but the verbal agreement in and of itself does not override the original court order. There are some hurdles you have to overcome with a verbal agreement. How can you prove there was ever a verbal agreement in place. I had a verbal agreement with my ex regarding custody of our daughter. She the resided to back out of our agreement and denied ever agreeing to anything. Fortunately I had a call recording application that complied with Federal and Texas State Laws (it announces that its recording the conversation at the beginning of the conversation). Since I was able to prove that we had a verbal agreement, the court honored the verbal agreement. So, a verbal agreement may lead to a decision in your favor if you can prove that an actual "valid" verbal contract has been made
what are the consequences of not having a signed and valid agency agreement
A contract (either written or verbal) has THREE requirements to be valid.1) An offer2) An acceptance of the offer3) A payment, or other thing of value, actually changing hands validating the agreement.
A contract (either written or verbal) has THREE requirements to be valid.1) An offer2) An acceptance of the offer3) A payment, or other thing of value, actually changing hands validating the agreement.