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No. Anything either party owned before the marriage is considers separate property. The only way you maybe could get a portion of the land is if it was combined with marital property (i.e. a marital home was built on the land)

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Q: If husband owned land before marriage and then gets a divorce does wife get land?
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Can alimoney be claimed from the husband from the property he owned prior to the marriage or only from the earnings post marriage?

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Is a house considered joint marital property in West Virginia if only the husband's name is on the deed?

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