Question is unclear.
Is the dead person the one who committed the offense, OR - -
Did the family of the dead person commit the crime?
In the first case, if the perpetrator is dead there will be no testifying because there will be no trial or hearing.
In the second case, there is no bar to testifying against the family of someone who happens to be deceased.
Certainly they can.
The 5th Amendment. That's why they say "I plea the 5th"
If a judge issues a subpeona (an order to produce evidence, which can include testimony), then yes. Other than marriage, family relationships don't legally protect one family member from testifying against another.
If it is against a family member - file a complaint of Domestic Violence. When your court appearance is held you will have to testify in front of the judge as to why you are in fear of bodily harm and/or what is driving you to this point. Be aware that the other person will also be given the opportunity to testify and the judge will decide whether the events rise to the level of granting an inujunction or not.
Refer to rsmo 491
Yep. They can be charged and then the family can file a civil suit against the person who is charged. Just like both families did O.J. Simpson.
NO because she agreed to testify agenst"the family"
The Count promises Albert that he will avenge the wrongs committed against him and his family by those responsible for his imprisonment.
The law states, that a wife Does NOT have to testify against her husband if she does NOT wish too. Call you local Court house to verify, they will tell you the same. I had the same question a few yrs ago myself, lol.
A spouse may not be forced to testify against their spouse in criminal proceedings. In divorce court, however, spouses typically tear each other to shreds, which can cause lasting psychological damage. That's why most divorces are now "no-fault" procedures, except in cases where large amounts of money and property are being contested.
yes
Their surname.