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What is the word for letting Germany take over the Sudetenland?
The word is "appeasement."
How was Germany appeased over by Sudetenland?
Germany was appeased over by Sudetenland because Hitler believed that it should be part of Germany since they spoke German and they were Germans.
How was Sudentenland turned over to Germany?
Because Britain and France were practicing Appeasement and didnt want to start a war with germany so they gave sudentenland(half of czechoslovakia)
Did Chamberlain convince the Czech government to give over the Sudetenland?
no. Chamberlain and others talked with Germany and agreed that Germany would take the Sudetenland. No one talked to the Czechs.
What did Hitler do that were forbidden by the Treaty of Versailles?
mHitler Island hopped and took over the Sudetenland and had an appeasement with them. Hitler also made a non aggressive pact with Joseph Stalin and he broke the pact. Stalin had to fight Hitler with what he had and won and Germany surrendered
What is the word for letting Germany take over the Sudetenland?
The word is "appeasement."
Munich Agreement (1938)?
Turned Czechoslovakia, at the time called Sudetenland, over to Germany.
How was Germany appeased over by Sudetenland?
Germany was appeased over by Sudetenland because Hitler believed that it should be part of Germany since they spoke German and they were Germans.
What was the appeasing policy?
the poliy of appeasement was a policy that Hitler and Mussolini came over that said that they would not take over the sudetenland but they did anyways
How was Sudentenland turned over to Germany?
Because Britain and France were practicing Appeasement and didnt want to start a war with germany so they gave sudentenland(half of czechoslovakia)
Did Chamberlain convince the Czech government to give over the Sudetenland?
no. Chamberlain and others talked with Germany and agreed that Germany would take the Sudetenland. No one talked to the Czechs.
What did Hitler declared at the Munich Conference?
Britain and France gave in to Hitler's demands for the Sudetenland. Czechoslovakia was not present at this conference, and it should be noted that this land contained key heavy industries, as well as 3 million GermansIn September 1938 Germany, Britain, France, and Italy met in Munich to decide what action, if any, to take concerning German demands for territory in Czechoslovakia. This conference came to be known as the Munich Conference. While there, Britain and France decided to allow Germany to annex the areas near the German border (the Sudetenland). Hitler said that it was his "final demand" in Europe.The action of Britain and France is regarded as appeasement.
What did Hitler do that were forbidden by the Treaty of Versailles?
mHitler Island hopped and took over the Sudetenland and had an appeasement with them. Hitler also made a non aggressive pact with Joseph Stalin and he broke the pact. Stalin had to fight Hitler with what he had and won and Germany surrendered
How does Sudetenland relate to World War 2?
It was one of the regions taken over by Germany leading to WW2.
Why did Germany invade Czechoslovakia before the war?
In the summer of 1938, Germany and Czechoslovakia began to quarrel over the disputed border area of the Sudetenland.
What is the importance of France and Great Britain turning over the Sudetenland?
This was an act of appeasement designed to obtain "Peace in our Time" and was reached with Germany without consultation with Czechoslovakia, the country and people most effected. It was a concession made in the hope of avoiding the Second World War. It failed to satisfy Adolf Hitler.
When did Germany take over the Sudetenland?
first answer: because it was taken away from 'Germany at the end of WW1. The Treaty of Versailles I think..It's people speak German, and it was an easy target for Hitler to take it in his Pre-WW11 expansion demandssecond more correct answer: The Sudetenland was actually not a part of Germany during the First World War, it was a part of Austria-Hungary. Hitler created a fake crisis over the Sudetenland as a means to attack & seize the whole of Czechoslovakia in 1938. That was his original plan. His plan was partially foiled by the Munich Agreement. In that agreement, the British & French leaders agreed to hand the Sudetenland over to Germany without a fight, although the Czech's were willing to fight. This action has become infamous in European history as the part of the "appeasement" of Hitler. Hitler was seen as the victor in this crisis. The actual reality behind the scenes is as such: The Munich Agreement of 30 September 1938 infuriated Hitler because he actually desired to start an armed conflict with Czechoslovakia to seize the entire country, beyond the Sudetenland. From his point of view, he won only a small portion of Czechoslovakia. Secretly Hitler's Generals were amazed & happy that war had been avoided. Hitler still had his eyes on the remainder of Czechoslovakia, and he correctly reasoned that the French & British would not risk war to interfere with Hitler's seizure of that nation. So in March 1939, the German Army seized the remainder of Czechoslovakia. So again Hitler amazed his Generals with the relatively painless conquest. However for the French & British, this was the "last straw" that ended the appeasement, and they secretly determined to resist further German aggressions, setting the stage for world war when Germany attacked Poland (allied to France & Britain).
