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James II of Scotland (born October 16, 1430 - died August 3, 1460), reigned Scotland between February 21, 1937, and his death. His nickname was Fiery Face, earned because of a vermilion birthmark on his face.

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Q: What was James II king of Scotland more known as?
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What is Don King well known for?

Don King is well known for his unique hair style and his role as eccentric boxing promoter. More information about King can be found on the site Wikipedia.


When Robert the Bruce became king?

Answer 1: Robert the Bruce defeated the English King Edward the Second at the Battle of Banockburn. Improvement: Wheras Answer one is a fact, this did not gain for Robert the Bruce the crown of Scotland. King Robert 1st Of Scotland won the crown by claim of right as King David 1 of Scotland's 4th Great grandson. In the process Bruce had to kill John Comyn, who had a rival claim through another royal line via John Baliol.


Who ruled as the first King of Queen and who ruled after king Henry XIII and Who ruled after Elizabeth I.?

The first monarch (King or Queen) was Aelle, King of the South Saxons. To find lots of information about King Aelle click on the link below "Wikipedia.com: Souch Saxons". There was no King Henry XIII ever in existance. If you ment King Henry VIII then it was King Edward VI who died when 15.(For more information of King Edward Click on the link below"Wikipedia.com: Edward VI of England"). The person that took the throne when Queen Elizabeth I died was King James I. James became King because he was Queen Elizabeth's cousin and designated heir. For more information about King James I click on the link below "Answers.com: James I of England".


Should Scotland be an independent nation?

Scotland is a country that later became part of a United Kingdom when the Queen of England (Queen Elizabeth the first) died and the next in line to the throne was the King of Scots. King James VI of Scotland took the throne of England to became James I of England as well. Combing the independent Scotland with the rest of the UK. Scotland remains a country, not a state, despite being part of the UK.


What was the result of The Glorious Revolution?

The Glorious Revolution, otherwise known as the Revolution of 1688, is the period in time when the current king (King James II) of England was overthrown by English Parliament. The successors of the throne were the Dutch William (William of Orange as some called him) and his wife Mary. They became King William II of England and Mary II of England. James II lost power in England. Apex~

Related questions

When was James you crowned king of Scotland?

There were several different kings of Scotland with the name James. Scotland's King James the Sixth was also crowned King James the First of England.


Why does the United Kingdom have that name?

Because it is made up of the Kingdoms of England, Scotland, and the Princedom of Wales. Wales was invaded by England and traditionally the eldest son of the reigning King or Queen of the UK is awarded the title 'Prince of Wales'. In 1603 Queen Elizabeth I of England died without heirs and her crown passed to her nearest relative, King James of Scotland, who then became known as King James VI/I or, more correctly, King James VI of Scotland, I of England.


What religion was James 1 in the Stuart times?

James was a presbytarian a type of Puritanism as this was what Scotland was when he became King of England as well he adopted a more Anglican Protestant set up.


Who was King James of King James Bible?

The King James Version Bible is a translation of the Bible which originated in 1611, King James of England ordered it to be translated from the Hebrew Bible. He set very strict rules to be followed and many men to do the work in order to insure it was translated right. It was then translated into a more modern form of English in 1769 by the University of Oxford. Which is the King James version Bible we have today. It is the most accurate Bible you can find, and the ONLY one I will recommend.


What religion was King James I?

James I (1566-1625, known as King James VI of Scotland) was a protestant. James practiced a presbyterian type of Puritanism, as this was the religion of Scotland. When he became King of England as well (July 25, 1603), he adopted a more Anglican Protestant form. This divided the Scots after his death. Initially James Ist, was brought up a Calvinist in the Presbyterian Church in Scotland! Later on he assumed the throne in England and converted to the English Church, describing himself as a Catholic, but refusing to acknowledge the papacy and subscribing to the Seven Councils.


What is the difference between the Modern King James version and the New King James version?

The New king James version is more understanable...it is in word you use everyday...while the Modern king James version is in more modern words...it's uneasy to read for some people...


Why did James vi become king after elizabeth i?

Elizabeth I died without issue (childless), so the succession passed to a cousin, James VI of Scotland, the son of Mary, Queen of Scots. When he took the throne after Elizabeth's death in 1603, he became James I of England. James and Elizabeth were both descended from Henry VII, and James was legitimately the next in line to the throne.


What happend after Queen Elizabeth the 1st died?

Hopefully no one will. The queen is not even the rightful person to be on the throne. The correct heir is a person in Australia who is the ancestor of the kings illegitimate child from a few hundred years ago. The queen is not legitimate as a result. Therefore, her family is not even entitled to rule in reality. The current monarchy is therefore complete and utter rubbish. Charles Windsor or his sons are not princes in reality and deserve no more respect than any other person who is alive today.


Who was the monarch when William Shakespeare wrote 'Macbeth'?

William Shakespeare might have written the play "Macbeth" as early as 1603. There were two monarchs in that year. One was Queen Elizabeth I. The other was King James I of England and Ireland and VI of Scotland.It was more likely that the play was written under the second monarch instead of the first. The play was set mainly in Scotland and reinvented Scotland's history. The reinvention would not have interested Queen Elizabeth I. But it would have interested King James I/VI. The King was the son of Mary Stuart, Queen of Scots. The Stuarts liked to circulate stories about themselves. One such story was their descent from the fictitious Banquo through his son Fleance, both of whom appeared in the Shakespearian play.


Who were King James you children?

King James children were John, peter, Eliza but i think he had some more children i am not sure.


How many words are in the King James Version?

There are 783,137 in the King James Version of the Bible. This Bible was translated in the year 1611. There is a more modern English version called the New King James Version.


When did Kingdom of Scotland end?

The Kingdom of Scotland has NOT ended!!!! It still exists. It is commonly referred to as Scotland, and is still a legal entity in itself. Two events occurred, #1 ; the union of the crown with England , by the accession of King James (I) of England and (VI) of SCotland. #2; The unions of the parliaments in the early 1700's. Whereby SCotland sent MP's to the Westminster parliament. Scotland retained its own legal system and currency. It is the above two events that might suggest that as a kingdom it ended, but no so!!!!