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nothing even close.

there are plenty of notes that the north of England's spoken dialect was considered to be almost a different language to that of the south, and that again was as far removed from the Lowlander Scots' use of English.

Spelling was just as optional - or should that be "spyllng wys jyst asse optiounal" - or "spellinge wass juste aus oportunalle" or any of a thousand other ways, with no real standard, or even consistency in written work - it was'NT until the development of the printing press that spelling became consistent.

the only real "standardised" language in the era was latin, which was used by the church throughout Europe.

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Q: Is during the middle ages there was a standardized version of English?
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