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Depends on how you look at it. She was the highest Catholic in the line of succession, and as such, was the favorite of some Catholic Britons to take the throne. Plus, Elizabeth I was proclaimed illegitamate by her father and was considered illegitamate since the moment of her birth by Catholics because they did not recognize her parents' marriage. Thus, some claimed that Mary I of Scotland was the rightfull monarch of England as Mary II of England. Indeed, Jacobite succession recognized Jacobite pretenders named Mary as Mary III and Mary IV of England respectivly.
Although Mary, Queen of Scots was descended from Henry VII, the first Tudor king (her grandmother was Margaret Tudor, sister to Henry VIII), she was of the House of Stuart through her father, James V of Scotland.
It really depends on what you think. Elizabeth was actually convinced by her councillors to execute Mary, and reluctantly signed the consent form. I personally don't think she was right to execute her (she was the real heir to the English throne!) but I can see why Elizabeth did as Mary spread Catholicism through England, and Elizabeth was Protestant.
No, Mary TUDOR was Henry VIIIs daughter (sister of Elizabeth) and Mary queen of SCOTS was Elizabeth's enemy and Mary (SCOTS) wanted to take over England but Mary TUDOR was a England queen ;)
No she was not. Henry VIII was her great-uncle (her grandmother was his sister)
No. Mary queen of Scots was Queen of Scotland. Mary I was queen Mary of England (also known as Bloody Mary), the eldest daughter of Henry VIII and the queen that preceded Queen Elizabeth I.
Mary Queen of Scots grandmother was the sister of Queen Elizabeth I's father Henry VIII.
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Who use to own Scotland?
Nobody owned Scotland but there were Queens and Kings, but the last royal Scot on the throne was Queen Mary of Scots but she was executed so the rulers ofEngland (the Tutors) decided to claim Scotland theirs and the Tutors still rule Scotland. But if Queen Mary of Scots wasn't executed I'd be on the throne.Scotland belongs to Scots !!!
Why did Mary have a claim to the English throne?
because she was cousins with elizabeth I.
Who fought to claim the throne in 1520?
Atahualpa fought his brother to claim the Inca Empire Throne.
Was king Charles the 1 a native English man?
No. He was a Scot, born a little before his father came South with his family to claim the throne.
Who surrendered the throne for the US to claim territory?
Queen Lili`uokalani surrendered her throne, under protest, to avoid bloodshed, trusting that the US government would right the wrong that had been done to her and the Hawaiian people. Instead Hawaii emerged from this as a territory
Why was Mary Queen of Scots a danger?
because she had a valid claim to the English throne and was married to someone who also had a valid claim to the English throne because the Pope told the Catholic people of England not to recognize Elizabeth as Queen of England She was actually plotting to take over the throne of England
What was Queen Elizabeth I'S claim to the throne?
daughter of anne Boleyn,second wife of Henry the 8th.
What is queen elizabeth 1ts most important event?
Winning the struggle againt Mary Queen of Scots who had a claim to the English throne and eventully signing her death warrent. she was executed at at Fotheringay Castle, Northamptonshire on February 8, 1587.
What did Mary Queen of Scots do to justify Elizabeth's executing her?
Mary's claim to the English throne was a worry to Elizabeth and she had the troopss Elizabeth thought to support her, as was the fact she was a catholic an had an heir. ironically her son inherited the english throne after Elizabeth's death and her line has lived on into he current royal family .
What did the notes say that Mary queen of scotts sent to Philip of Spain?
The notes that Mary Queen of Scots sent to Philip II of Spain requested his assistance and support in her efforts to gain the English throne. She sought military intervention to help her overthrow Queen Elizabeth I and secure her own claim to the English crown.
Who use to own Scotland?
Nobody owned Scotland but there were Queens and Kings, but the last royal Scot on the throne was Queen Mary of Scots but she was executed so the rulers ofEngland (the Tutors) decided to claim Scotland theirs and the Tutors still rule Scotland. But if Queen Mary of Scots wasn't executed I'd be on the throne.Scotland belongs to Scots !!!
Who challanged queen elizabeths claim to the throne?
the court
What was king James i claim to the throne?
James I of England was already James VI of Scotland. His claim to the English throne was through his great grandmother, Margaret Tudor, eldest sister of Henry VIII. His mother was Mary, Queen of Scots, who was the daughter of James V of Scotland, son of Margaret Tudor. Henry VII's three children all died without children so James was next in line.
Who challenged Elizabeth claim to throne?
it was infact the catholics that challenged Elizabeth the firsts claim to the english throne.
Has Mary Queen of Scots influenced the Scottish language?
Mary Queen of Scots, as a historical figure, did not have a direct influence on the Scottish language. However, her reign and interactions with other European courts may have indirectly influenced language trends in Scotland during that time.
What was king James I's claim to the throne?
James I of England was already James VI of Scotland. His claim to the English throne was through his great grandmother, Margaret Tudor, eldest sister of Henry VIII. His mother was Mary, Queen of Scots, who was the daughter of James V of Scotland, son of Margaret Tudor. Henry VII's three children all died without children so James was next in line.
Why did Mary have a claim to the English throne?
because she was cousins with elizabeth I.
