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The king and Queen of Spain sent Columbus to America. The Spanish Government controlled The Spanish Colonies until they overthrew Spanish rule. The colonies existed for the benefit of Spain. Very little benefit accrued to the conquered. The French mainly existed to provide furs for France. In Haiti, a plantation owner wanted to make his money and return to France as fast as possible. He had no desire to remain there and develop the land. The French in Canada preferred the English Rulers during the American Revolution and fought against an American Army sent to Canada. They refused an offer from a French Army to become a part of France again. The Dutch ruled New York for a brief period of time.

Private enterprise or corporations and not the government sent the British colonies to America. Both the investors in England and the colonists had a financial interest in the success of the colony. They worked to make it a success. They also had English Law working for them. When an English Army conquered New York, the Dutch settlers preferred living under English Law to Dutch Law. They fought against a Dutch Army sent to reconquer them.

The English Colonies also had either partial or full self government. The others did not. This helped keep foreign tyranny at bay.

Of course trouble came in 1763 when King George III decided to change things.

French and Spanish colonies pretty much only existed for the 'home lands'. The colonies provided furs and other raw product.

On the other hand the English colonies had a tad bit more freedom. Although they still were 'guinea pigs' for the home land...

~Lexy Lynch

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Q: In what ways did the British colonial experience differ from that of the Spanish French and Dutch and what may have accounted for these differences?
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