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War damages Germany had to pay 33.billion dollars to the Allies

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Q: How did reparations lead to World War 2?
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Did people receive reparations after World War 2?

no


What were the reparations for Britain after World War 2?

== == There were no war reparations after the Second World War and Britain, being one of the winners, certainly would not have had to pay them if there had been.


How did the severe punishment to Germany at the end of World War I contribute to World War 2?

The reparations Germany was required to pay after World War 1 contributed to the hyper inflation that existed in the Wiemar Republic of Germany that coupled with the Great depression lead to the rise of Dictatorships in Germany and Italy. And with Hitlers rise to power lead the world into World War 2.


What country had to pay reparations after World War 2 ended?

Germany


Who supported reparations to Japanese Americans during World War 2?

It was J.A.C.L.


What country had to pay reparations after World War 2?

Japan, Italy, and Germany.


Harsh terms used in the treaties ending world war 2 are explained by?

Reparations .


Which Allied country received the largest share of German reparations after World War 2?

The United States received the largest share of German reparations after World War II. Great Britain received the second largest share.


What territory of Germany was invaded when Germany failed to pay reparations after World War 2?

The Ruhr, a industrial area in Germany was invaded by the French. They invaded to take reparations by force.


What Lead to Germany's downfall in world war 2?

It was World War 1. They Didn't Have A Take In World War 2.


Why was US responsible for most of the postwar in World War 2?

They were responsible for making reparations for dropping bombs on Hiroshima and Nagasaki.


Why did the US send money to Greece and Turkey after World War 2?

The USA sent money to Greece and Turkey after World War 2 for war reparations that needed to be done in their nations. Other nations received funds too.