they must be proven by newtons father of the other law
No, the scientific method can be uncontrolled to for it to be valid.
No, 1N=.102kg. To convert Newtons to kilograms just divide by 9.8m/s2. This is the acceleration of gravity near Earth's surface. F=ma, where F is the force measured in Newtons, m is the mass measured in kilograms, and a is the acceleration in meters per second per second.
a valid investigation is an effective investigation i think. The results turn out to be what you had inferred.
Sorry but your question doesn't make sense... You have to know what the hypothesis is to test if your question is valid.
Only in inertial reference frames.
No, movement can be measured in relation to any reference point, whether fixed in pace or not. Measurements often involve comparing the position of an object or system to a chosen reference point, allowing for the quantitative analysis of its motion. The reference point itself does not necessarily have to be fixed in pace for this comparison to be made.
Newton's First Law of Inertia applies to objects at rest staying at rest and objects in motion staying in motion unless acted upon by an external force. It describes the concept of inertia, which is the tendency of an object to resist changes in its motion.
From the perspective of Person A, time does speed up for Person B as they travel faster. This phenomenon is explained by the theory of relativity, where time dilation occurs as one approaches the speed of light. So, Person A would observe Person B's time passing slower than their own as Person B travels faster.
Two postulates of relativity: 1: laws of physics are same for all observers, despite how fast they are moving with respect to each other. 2: speed of light has same value measured by all observers despite how fast they are moving relative to each other. Special relativity is valid for inertial reference frames (frame where newton's 1st law holds) and explains time dilation (phenomena in which a clock moving [with v close to c] in respect to a clock in an inertial reference frame, appears to be running slower) and length contraction (length of an object moving at a v close to c appears to be contracted [in the direction of it's motion], for an observer in an inertial reference frame) relativistic modifications need to be made for kinematics if velocity is close enough to c. these modifications involve the gamma factor. General relativity is about the principle of equivalence: the effects of a gravitational field are equivalent to acceleration. this basically leads to the idea that gravity can bend spacetime, which means all objects (including light) follow geodesic paths. General rel expands special rel to include accelerating frames of reference
there is no time frame or a bank draft, it is valid for as long as you have it.
It depends for what. It is valid as diagnose reference to be included in an anamnesis.
It isn't truly a paradox. Here's the problem: A spaceship leaves earth for a trip at high relativistic velocity. Aboard is one twin, the other having remained on earth. The ship is moving away from earth at high speed, and returns to earth at high speed, therefore it's time is dilated, so the twin on the ship ages more slowly and should return to earth having aged less than his earthbound counterpart. However, from the perspective of the ship, it is the earth that is moving away at high velocity, and the earthbound twin should be the one aging more slowly. The paradox dissolves when the nature of each frame of reference is taken into account. The earth is an inertial frame of reference. The spaceship, since it must undergo several positive and negative accelerations to make the round trip, is a non-inertial frame. Only the viewpoint from the intertial frame is valid. The explanation is far too long and involved to go into here, but you will find one of the best and most detailed explanations in Paul Davies' book "About Time" on pages 62 to 65.
newton's first law is not breakable. so... yes it is valid during takeoff
Yes, the concept of an inertial frame of reference still applies to an object moving at a constant velocity upward. As long as there are no external forces acting on the object, it will continue moving in a straight line with a constant velocity in that frame of reference.
No, the result of multiplying Newtons by meters is not a valid unit in physics. Newtons represent a unit of force, while meters represent a unit of distance. If you multiply Newtons by meters, you get Newton-meters, which represents a unit of work or energy, also known as a joule.
they must be proven by newtons father of the other law