Yes, it is possible to secure a mortgage for an amount greater than the purchase price of a property through a loan known as a "jumbo mortgage." These loans are typically used for high-value properties and can exceed the traditional loan limits set by government-sponsored entities like Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac.
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It does if the policy is current and there is adequate coverage. If the property is underinsured the insurance company will not pay for the entire loss. That all relates to the homeowner's insurance.If the mortgage is greater than the value of the property then you will owe the balance after the homeowner's insurance payment unless you have mortgage insurance.It does if the policy is current and there is adequate coverage. If the property is underinsured the insurance company will not pay for the entire loss. That all relates to the homeowner's insurance.If the mortgage is greater than the value of the property then you will owe the balance after the homeowner's insurance payment unless you have mortgage insurance.It does if the policy is current and there is adequate coverage. If the property is underinsured the insurance company will not pay for the entire loss. That all relates to the homeowner's insurance.If the mortgage is greater than the value of the property then you will owe the balance after the homeowner's insurance payment unless you have mortgage insurance.It does if the policy is current and there is adequate coverage. If the property is underinsured the insurance company will not pay for the entire loss. That all relates to the homeowner's insurance.If the mortgage is greater than the value of the property then you will owe the balance after the homeowner's insurance payment unless you have mortgage insurance.
I doubt it. The Mortgagee (i.e., the mortgage company) has an interest solely in the value of its collateral, which is its financial interest in the property as described in the mortgage documentation. I do not believe that the Mortgagee would possess an "insurable interest" in the property sufficient to compel you, the owner (also called the "mortgagor") to purchase insurance beyond replacement cost coverage. Further, I doubt a carrier would even sell coverage greater than replacement cost.
no. If you have a loan greater than 80% of the value of the home and the lender requires mortgage insurance, then it is not optional.
Yes. The second is subordinate to the first mortgage and therefore is at greater risk. If equity exists, the 2nd mortgage holder may receive payment for the debt when a senior lender forecloses. If there is not, then their lien on the property is wiped out and they must pursue the borrower in another fashion (such as a lawsuit). If the 2nd mortgage lender does not want the 1st lender to foreclose, they may choose to pay the 1st mortgage current before the foreclosure proceeds and attempt to collect or foreclose themselves.
What is is that you want to achieve with a refinance? Is it to lower interest and therby payments? Or do you just want to have better and different terms? With regards to your question, you can refinance the property however, you will have to come to the closing table with enough cash to make the lenders whole (ie. pay off the balance due). If your first and second mortgage balances are greater than the appraised value of the property, then the assumption is that the value of the property has dropped. If the difference is not too large, perhaps there are factors within your control that can help you increase the value. Please keep in mind that it is the holder of the second mortgage that is at greater risk of loss than the holder of the first. Depending upon the specifics of your situation, perhaps there is some negotiating room to get creative with your situation. A conversation with an experienced mortgage broker in your area might prove to be useful.