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This is really simple. Many trinitarians think that by rendering Hebrews 1:8 as "Your throne O God" they prove the trinity to be true. (By the way, grammatically speaking, either rendering is acceptable.) However, what they fail to realize is that by this being a quote from Psalm 45:6 (as you implied in the question) is that the only possible way it can be translated and still make sense is "God is your throne." Why is this so? Simply because Psalm 45 has reference to a human king, most likely King Solomon. Since it refers to a human king, can anyone logically or truthfully argue that this human king was referred to as "God"? But the pharse "God is your throne" would make sense there, and regardless of one's belief about Jesus, it would also make sense where it is quoted in Hebrews. What would not make sense isrender it one way in one passage and a different way in another passage. So the last passage ought to be translated as the first.

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Q: Why has Psalm 45v6 and Hebrews 1v8 been translated 'God is your throne' instead of the more widely accepted translation 'your throne O God'?
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