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The Phillips curve plots inflation against unemployment and was first published in 1958. It was used in policy making to reduce unemployment by accepting a higher level of inflation. However, as inflation increases workers begin to factor the increase into their wage demands, e.g. if the workers know that inflation is running at 5% and want a 'real' wage increase of 5% they'll ask for 5%+5%=10% wage increase (if they only receive an increase of 5% the real value of their wages will stay the same and if they have no increase the real value will fall by 5%).

Because all workers factor in inflation into their wage demands unemplyment returns to its original level while inflation remains high. This realisation was made after the economic woes of the 1970s and 80s where there was significant inflation and unemplyment in many countries - something that had been unpredicted.

The relevance of the Phillips curve today serves as a warning that governments cannot trade unemployment for inflation. This is why Central Banks only target inflation and not unemloyment in their monetary policy decisions.

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Q: What is the relevance of the Phillips curve to modern economies?
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Relevance of phillip's curve to less developed countries?

The Phillips curve's relevance to less developed countries is that it serves as a frontier. These countries set the pace for the entire wage structure.


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