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This is a case where a few specifics might help, but in general no, it does not.
I'm thinking that this might come into effect in the following way:
Mr. X got divorced and then later remarried. The deed to his house is in his name and the name of his new spouse as joint tenants. His will (which may have been made out before he remarried) says he leaves all his real property to his son. However, the fact that his wife was a joint tenant means that she now owns the house outright; she can do whatever she wants with it (including sell it) and the son is just out in the cold (though if Mr. X owned any other real property on which his new wife was not a joint tenant, the son would get that ... probably; depending on the state, Mr. X may not be legally allowed to exclude his spouse from his will, so she might get some portion of that too, but the son would probably get at least part of it).
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