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nCr + nCr-1 = n!/[r!(n-r)!] + n!/[(r-1)!(n-r+1)!]

= n!/[(r-1)!(n-r)!]*{1/r + 1/n-r+1}

= n!/[(r-1)!(n-r)!]*{[(n-r+1) + r]/[r*(n-r+1)]}

= n!/[(r-1)!(n-r)!]*{(n+1)/r*(n-r+1)]}

= (n+1)!/[r!(n+1-r)!]

= n+1Cr

1 answer


You would take the following steps for G = A / (1-R):

G = A / (1-R)

Multiply by (1-R):

G * (1-R) = A

Divide by G:

(1-R) = A/G

1-R = A/G

Subtract 1:

-R = (A/G) - 1

Divide By -1:

R = -((A/G) - 1)

Check Work:

Original Problem:

A = 12; R = 5

G = 12 / (1-5)

G = -3

Solving For R:

R = -((12/-3)-1)

R = 5

Therefore, R= -((A/G)-1)

1 answer


Consider a denominator of r;

It has proper fractions:

1/r, 2/r, ...., (r-1)/r

Their sum is: (1 + 2 + ... + (r-1))/r

The numerator of this sum is

1 + 2 + ... + (r-1)

Which is an Arithmetic Progression (AP) with r-1 terms, and sum:

sum = number_of_term(first + last)/2

= (r-1)(1 + r-1)/2

= (r-1)r/2

So the sum of the proper fractions with a denominator or r is:

sum{r} = ((r-1)r/2)/r = ((r-1)r/2r = (r-1)/2

Now consider the sum of the proper fractions with a denominator r+1:

sum{r+1} = (((r+1)-1)/2

= ((r-1)+1)/2

= (r-1)/2 + 1/2

= sum{r) + 1/2

So the sums of the proper fractions of the denominators forms an AP with a common difference of 1/2

The first denominator possible is r = 2 with sum (2-1)/2 = ½;

The last denominator required is r = 100 with sum (100-1)/2 = 99/2 = 49½;

And there are 100 - 2 + 1 = 99 terms to sum

So the required sum is:

sum = ½ + 1 + 1½ + ... + 49½

= 99(½ + 49½)/2

= 99 × 50/2

= 2475

2 answers


Resistors in parallel equation is

!/R = 1/r(1)_ + 1/r)2) + 1/r(3)

Since they are all 8 ohms.

Then

1/R = 1/8 + 1/8 + 1/8

1/R = 3/8

R = 8/3

R = 2 2/3 = 2.6666....

2 answers


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There is not the factor: there are two factors: (m - 1) and (1 - r)

2 answers


r=0,


Tr-r = 0 = r(T-1), since T != 1, then T-1 is non zero so r must be zero.

1 answer


I think you mean r2 -7r -8 = 0. If so, then factor it: (r+1)(r-8) = 0

Then set r+1 = 0, r+1-1=-1, r = -1 Set r-8 =0, r-8+8 = 8 so r = 8

1 answer


It is a linear equation in one variable r.

The solution to the equation is r = 1.

1 answer


The terms in row 22 are 22Cr where r = 0, 1, 2, ..., 22.

22Cr = 22!/[r!*(22-r)!] where r! = r*(r-1)*...*3*2*1 and 0! = 1

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The formula for the sum of the series r(1/n2-1/n2) is r(1-1/n2).

1 answer



Stroker and Hoop - 2004 C-A-R-R- Trouble 1-1 was released on:

USA: 1 August 2004

1 answer


1 - r/7

Another way to write the same thing is 7/7-r/7 which is

(7-r)/7

2 answers


Each number separated by a dot is an eight bit number, so conversion requires converting four numbers. To convert a decimal number to binary, divide by two in succession until the number zero is reached.

121 / 2 = 60 r 1

60 / 2 = 30 r 0

30 / 2 = 15 r 0

15 / 2 = 7 r 1

7 / 2 = 3 r 1

3 / 2 = 1 r 1

1 / 2 = 0 r 1

Then, you read remainders backwards:

1111001

If there's less than 8 numbers, add zeroes to the left:

01111001

Then, do this for the other numbers.

55 / 2 = 22 r 1

22 / 2 = 11 r 0

11 / 2 = 5 r 1

5 / 2 = 2 r 1

2 / 2 = 1 r 0

1 / 2 = 0 r 1

00101101

7 / 2 = 3 r 1

3 / 2 = 1 r 1

1 / 2 = 0 r 1

00000111

15 / 2 = 7 r 1

7 / 2 = 3 r 1

3 / 2 = 1 r 1

1 / 2 = 1 r 1

00001111

Once you have all the binary digits, simply stick them back together using dots:

01111001.00101101.00000111.00001111

1 answer


Surface area of sphere is 4 x pi x r x r

Volume of sphere is (4/3) x pi x r x r x r

Hence ((4/3) x pi x r x r x r) / (4 x pi x r x r) = 1/2

((4/3) x r) / (4) = 1/2

(1/3) x r = 1/2

r = 1 and 1/2

1 answer


This browser is totally bloody useless for mathematical display but...


The probability function of the binomial distribution is P(X = r) = (nCr)*p^r*(1-p)^(n-r) where nCr =n!/[r!(n-r)!]

Let n -> infinity while np = L, a constant, so that p = L/n

then

P(X = r) = lim as n -> infinity of n*(n-1)*...*(n-k+1)/r! * (L/n)^r * (1 - L/n)^(n-r)

= lim as n -> infinity of {n^r - O[(n)^(k-1)]}/r! * (L^r/n^r) * (1 - L/n)^(n-r)

= lim as n -> infinity of 1/r! * (L^r) * (1 - L/n)^(n-r) (cancelling out n^r and removing O(n)^(r-1) as being insignificantly smaller than the denominator, n^r)

= lim as n -> infinity of (L^r) / r! * (1 - L/n)^(n-r)


Now lim n -> infinity of (1 - L/n)^n = e^(-L)

and lim n -> infinity of (1 - L/n)^r = lim (1 - 0)^r = 1

lim as n -> infinity of (1 - L/n)^(n-r) = e^(-L)


So P(X = r) = L^r * e^(-L)/r! which is the probability function of the Poisson distribution with parameter L.

1 answer


factor out the common monomial, 5.

5(r^3-1)

Factor as a difference of cubes.

5(r-1)(r^2+r+1)

4 answers


The r+1 th term is nCr(-x)r where r = 0, 1, 2, ... , n.

and where nCr = n!/[r!*(n-r)!]

1 answer


If you start with an investment of I and the interest rate is r% per annum (compounded), then you want a solution to

2I = I(1 + r/100)24
or I = (1 + r/100)24

That is ln(2) = 24*ln(1 + r/100)

so that ln(1 + r/100) = ln(2)/24 = 0.02888

or (1 + r/100) = exp(0.02888) = 1.0293

and so r/100 = 0.0293 so that r = 2.93%





If you start with an investment of I and the interest rate is r% per annum (compounded), then you want a solution to

2I = I(1 + r/100)24
or I = (1 + r/100)24

That is ln(2) = 24*ln(1 + r/100)

so that ln(1 + r/100) = ln(2)/24 = 0.02888

or (1 + r/100) = exp(0.02888) = 1.0293

and so r/100 = 0.0293 so that r = 2.93%





If you start with an investment of I and the interest rate is r% per annum (compounded), then you want a solution to

2I = I(1 + r/100)24
or I = (1 + r/100)24

That is ln(2) = 24*ln(1 + r/100)

so that ln(1 + r/100) = ln(2)/24 = 0.02888

or (1 + r/100) = exp(0.02888) = 1.0293

and so r/100 = 0.0293 so that r = 2.93%





If you start with an investment of I and the interest rate is r% per annum (compounded), then you want a solution to

2I = I(1 + r/100)24
or I = (1 + r/100)24

That is ln(2) = 24*ln(1 + r/100)

so that ln(1 + r/100) = ln(2)/24 = 0.02888

or (1 + r/100) = exp(0.02888) = 1.0293

and so r/100 = 0.0293 so that r = 2.93%



2 answers


Yes.

y = e^x

dy/dx = e^x

Note: e^x = 1 + x + x²/2! + x³/3! + ... + x^r/r! + ...

→ d/dx(e^x) = 1 + x + x²/2! + x³/3! + ... + x^(r-1)/(r-1)! + ...

(The font is extremely bad: r! is r-exclamation mark = r factorial = r × (r-1) × (r-2) × ... × 2 × 1)

1 answer


a+r-1

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If we have y=a(b)^t as the equation then take b from this equation

case !: If b <1

then b=1-r

r=1-b

this r is the decay factor

case 2:If b >1

then b=1+r

r=b-1

this is the growth factor

1 answer


The terms in row 29 are:

29Cr = 29!/[r!*(29-r)!] for r = 0, 1, 2, ... 29

where r! denotes 1*2*3*...*r

and 0! = 1

1 answer


Given T = R + RS

Lateral inversion makes it to be R + RS = T

Taking R as common factor, we get R(1+S) = T

Now dividing by (1+S) both sides, R = T / (1+S)

Hence the solution R = T/(1+S)

1 answer


1 to 6 = 2 to 12

2 answers



r is worth - 0.542 mathematically if 1 2 r plus 6.5.

1 answer


I think 1 day a week

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1/R = 1/60 + 1/60+ 1/60+ 1/60 + 1/60

1/R = 5 / 60

R = 60/5

R = 12 ohms.

2 answers


It is

48/2= 24 r 0 ^

24/2= 12 r 0 |

12/2 = 6 r 0 |

6/2 = 3 r 0 |

3/2 = 1 r 1 |

1/2 = 0 r 1 |

So your read it from 1 to 48

:D Enjoy

1 answer



R-2 Has all the same laws as R-1 plus 1 more. R-2 allows for multiple family homes, such as apartment complexes.

1 answer


PIVFA=(1-(1/(1+R)^n)/R PIVFA(10%10)=(1-(1/(1+0.1)^10)/0.1=6.1446

1 answer


Use Pythagoras

3^2 = r^2 + (2 + r)^2

9 = r^2 + 4 + 4r + r^2

2r^2 + 4r = 5

Complete the Square

r^2 + 2r = 5/2

(r + 1)^2 - 1^2 = 5/2

(r + 1)^2 = 5/2 +1 = 7/2

r + 1 = +/- sqrt)7/2)

r = -1 +/-sqrt)7/2)

r = -1 +/- sqrt(3.5

r = -1 +/- 1.8708....

r = -2.8708.... (Unresolved!!!! Philosophically you cannot have a negative length).

& r = 0.8708.... The answer!!!!

1 answer


Emi = l * r * ((1 + r)^n / (1 + r)^n - 1) * 1/12

where l = loan amt

r = rate of interest

n = no of terms

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R & B stands for rythem and blues

1 answer


PVIFA = (1 - 1 / (1 + r)n) / r where n is the number of payment periods; r is the nominal interest rate for one period

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NPV=NFV/(1+r)^n The role of the "(1+r)^n" is to discount the future money to what it is worth in todays dollars. The 1 accounts to the sum itself and the plus r takes into account the interest rate. NPV=NFV/(1+r)^n The role of the "(1+r)^n" is to discount the future money to what it is worth in todays dollars. The 1 accounts to the sum itself and the plus r takes into account the interest rate.

1 answer


p = 50q/100 = 1/2 q

r = 40q/100 = 2/5 q

p = (1/2)/(2/5) = (1/2)(5/2) = 5/4 r or 1 1/4 r Thus, p is 125% of r.

1 answer


No. It more than doubles it.

It the interest rate is r%, the total interest increases, per unit invested, from

[(1+r/100)^2t - 1] - [(1+r/100)^t - 1] = (1+r/100)^2t - (1+r/100)^t

1 answer



Let the three numbers in GP: a/r, a, ar---------(A)
Where '^' is power of . . .

Sum of these numbers are:
a/r +a +ar = 38
a(1\r+1+r) = 38 ---- (1)
Product of these numbers are:
a^3 = 1728
= (12)^3
a = 12

Putting the value of a in (1) you will get:

12(1\r+1+r) = 38

And factorising, we get
r = 2/3 or r = 3/2

Sub. the r and a value in (A), we get

8,12,18 or 18,12,8. When a = 12

And smallest no. is 8.

1 answer




values of general gas constant

R = 0.082 atm. ℓ.mol-1.K-1

R = 8.314 Pa.m3.mol-1.K-1

R = 1.99Cal.mol-1.K-1

1 answer


The total value after 2 years is 15000 + 2496 = 17496.

So 17496 = 15000*(1 + r/100)2That is, (1 + r/100)2= 17496/15000 = 1.1664

(1 + r/100) = sqrt(1.1664) = 1.08

so r = 8% pa.



The total value after 2 years is 15000 + 2496 = 17496.

So 17496 = 15000*(1 + r/100)2That is, (1 + r/100)2= 17496/15000 = 1.1664

(1 + r/100) = sqrt(1.1664) = 1.08

so r = 8% pa.



The total value after 2 years is 15000 + 2496 = 17496.

So 17496 = 15000*(1 + r/100)2That is, (1 + r/100)2= 17496/15000 = 1.1664

(1 + r/100) = sqrt(1.1664) = 1.08

so r = 8% pa.



The total value after 2 years is 15000 + 2496 = 17496.

So 17496 = 15000*(1 + r/100)2That is, (1 + r/100)2= 17496/15000 = 1.1664

(1 + r/100) = sqrt(1.1664) = 1.08

so r = 8% pa.

2 answers


10

(are, not 'r')

1 answer


No, they are not.

1 answer


T r+1 = (n / r) (a ^n-r) x (b)^r

1 answer